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Internal Medicine Board Review  - 
 
What's on the Nose???

A 64 year old  man is evaluated in your office for a left sided headache that started 24 hours ago. He describes the headache as a burning sensation over his left temple and the forehead. He also reports fatigue and malaise for the past one day. He has no significant past medical history.   On examination, he has a low grade fever at 100.4F, Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg. Physical examination reveals hyperesthesia on his left forehead and skin findings as shown in the picture below:
Which of the following is the most appropriate immediate next step in management ?
A) Mupirocin cream
B) Start Oral Cephalexin
C) Refer to Ophthalmology
D) Refer to Dermatology
E) Topical Acyclovir
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Neeti Singh's profile photoFrancisco ortega martos's profile photoAnand Brar's profile photoSilvan Frangaj's profile photo
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The guy should be started on oral Acyclovir.
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Q437) A 65 year old man with HTN presents to your office for evaluation of right leg pain that increases on walking about one block. The pain seems to disappear when he sits and takes rest for about 10 minutes. He is concerned because it is interfering with his exercise activity that his cardiologist has recommended him. His medications include hydrochlorthiazide and enalapril. The patient has a history of heavy smoking but he quit 2 years ago. Physical exam was normal except for diminished dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally. An arterial doppler is performed and ankle brachial index obtained which is 0.70 . The next best step in the management of his leg pain?
A) Start Cilostozol
B) Start Pentoxyfilline
C) Supervised exercise therapy
D) Recommend unsupervised exercise for 30 minutes everyday.
E) Add clopidogrel.
F) Obtain Magnetic Resonance Angiography.
G) Arterial bypass surgery

438) For the patient in Q437, which of the following is most effective in reducing the combined risk of ischemic stroke, myocardial infarction, or vascular death ?
A) Aspirin
B) Clopidogrel
C) Cilostozol
D) Pentoxifilline
E) Abciximab

439) The patient was appropriately treated and a follow up visit was scheduled one month later. The patients symptoms have moderately improved. During this visit, his fasting lipid panel revealed an LDL of 126mg%, HgbA1c of 5.5 and a blood pressure of 128/82. Next important step:
A) Advise dietary modification to treat his high LDL cholesterol
B) Start Atorvastatin and Dietary changes
C) Start Metformin
D) Start Metoprolol

440) Three months after he was diagnosed with Peripheral arterial disease, the patient suffered a massive myocardial infarction and hospitalized. He underwent Coronary artery bypass grafting and his symptoms are now well controlled. While in the hospital, the patient was started on Aspirin and Clopidogrel. He was continued on Hydrochlorthiazide and Enalapril. His Ejection fraction after the MI was 35%. One month after discharge, during a regular follow up with his cardiologist, he was started on metoprolol. Two weeks after this the patient comes back to your office with worsening leg pain on walking. On physical examination, the legs are normal in color with diminished dorsalis pedis pulses bilaterally.
Next best step in management:
A) Stop metoprolol
B) Change metoprolol to carvedilol
C) Start Cilostozol
D) Obtain angiogram and schedule arterial bypass surgery
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Chinar Agarwal's profile photoNilanjan kumar's profile photo
2 comments
 
r/o arterial infraction emboli from heart.....
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Internal Medicine Board Review  - 
 
A 62-year-old man presents with painless, progressive enlargement in the left side of his neck over the past 3 months. He denies any fever, night sweats or chills. He denies any pain, dysphagia, cough, hemoptysis, chestpain, shortness of breath, history of trauma or dental infection. His past medical history is significant for  100 pack-year history of smoking and daily alcohol abuse. On examination, he is afebrile. He has a large 5 cm , hard, non-tender and matted lymphadenopathy on the left lateral aspect of his neck . He has no other lymph node enlargement. No rash. Reminder of the exam including oral cavity examination is normal. There are no obvious tongue, pharyngeal or tonsillar lesions.  HIV and VDRL are negative. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen and pelvis does not reveal any lymphadenopathy or obvious mass lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Open biopsy of the neck mass

B) Pan-endoscopy

C)  Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology ( FNAC)

D) Test for HPV ( Human Papilloma Virus) and EBV ( Ebstein Barr Virus)

E) Prescribe antibiotic therapy and re-evaluate in 4 weeks
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Osama Muhammad Ali's profile photoAvinash Rathore's profile photoAnand Brar's profile photoShoaib Mohammad Ali's profile photo
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How will you approach this neck mass???

A 62-year-old man presents with painless, progressive enlargement in the left side of his neck over the past 3 months. He denies any fever, night sweats or chills. He denies any pain, dysphagia, cough, hemoptysis, chestpain, shortness of breath, history of trauma or dental infection. His past medical history is significant for  100 pack-year history of smoking and daily alcohol abuse. On examination, he is afebrile. He has a large 5 cm , hard, non-tender and matted lymphadenopathy on the left lateral aspect of his neck . He has no other lymph node enlargement. No rash. Reminder of the exam including oral cavity examination is normal. There are no obvious tongue, pharyngeal or tonsillar lesions.  HIV and VDRL are negative. A CT scan of the chest, abdomen and pelvis does not reveal any lymphadenopathy or obvious mass lesions. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A) Open biopsy of the neck mass

B) Pan-endoscopy

C)  Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology ( FNAC)

D) Test for HPV ( Human Papilloma Virus) and EBV ( Ebstein Barr Virus)

E) Prescribe antibiotic therapy and re-evaluate in 4 weeks
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Check these labs carefully before you choose an answer!!
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A 52 Year old obese man is evaluated in your office during a routine annual visit. He denies any fatigue or recent weight changes. He has normal appetite and physically active. He had a colonoscopy 1 year ago that was normal. On physical examination, he is obese with a BMI of 34. Skin examination reveals the findings shown in the image below :

Which of the following is most useful in diagnosing the underlying condition?
A) Serum Insulin levels
B) TSH and Free T4
C) Cortisol levels
D) Hemoglobin A1C
E) CT Scan of the Chest, Abdomen and Pelvis
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